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Prolotario
@Prolotario1
I Do Not Play The Semantics Game
No! Control without being challenged turns into acquisition if left unabated. Historical examples where the U.S. controlled land without owning it (like the Panama Canal Zone). Your argument is on paper. Mines is based on territorial presence sustained through power. So I said acquired for a reason. Because that’s called de facto sovereignty. I stand by that statement.
When a superpower establishes an unchallengeable military presence, dictating who can enter, build, or invest, the line between “controlling” a place and “owning” it becomes razor-thin in practice. Throughout history, long-term military control sustained by power has often evolved into permanent possession, regardless of what official documents say.
The Panama Canal Zone is a prime example of this exact dynamic, along with a few other historical precedents where the U.S. wielded total territorial power without formal ownership.
For decades, it functioned exactly as an acquisition through sustained power. However, local unrest and shifting global politics eventually forced the U.S. to sign the Torrijos-Carter Treaties in 1977, ultimately returning full control and ownership to Panama in 1999.
So ask yourself this question. Why did the US have to do a reverse by signing documents to give ownership back when it didn’t formally do it before they took control of that region if it was not deemed legally “acquired” preceding the military presence in Panama?
Source(s):
• https://x.com/Prolotario1/status/2103839905981870250
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